Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How do the Sola Scrptura folks react to the Dead Sea Scrolls and other more recent discoveries of ancient Biblical texts not among those canonized by Martin Luther?

You'll usually find your answer there.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Has anyone experienced an out of the body experience, as a child, years before you had ever heard the term or understood the implications?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Where did the false claim that Haitian immigrants are eating pets come from?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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